It was a very specific question. You’re the one turning it into an abstraction.
I can give a very specific answer to that, since I’m from Germany: In Germany in 1933, the Nazis used the legal system to give their inhuman crimes a veneer of legality. The reason for this was their absolute and extremely violent seizure of political power. They even retroactively legalized murders—including those of their own henchmen, such as Ernst Röhm, and many of their own party members.
Millions upon millions were murdered by the Nazis—and all of this was sanctioned by the legal system of that monstrous state.
This did not end until 1945 with the Allies’ victory over Nazi Germany.
However, a victory was evidently not achieved, for today in Israel and the U.S., hundreds of thousands of people are being held in concentration camps that are hardly any different from those of the Nazis.
The quote you’ve taken from this article could hardly be more inappropriate, since it bears no resemblance to reality—in either version.
What do you mean with that? You have asked an abstract question, not any specific real situation.
It was a very specific question. You’re the one turning it into an abstraction.
I can give a very specific answer to that, since I’m from Germany: In Germany in 1933, the Nazis used the legal system to give their inhuman crimes a veneer of legality. The reason for this was their absolute and extremely violent seizure of political power. They even retroactively legalized murders—including those of their own henchmen, such as Ernst Röhm, and many of their own party members.
Millions upon millions were murdered by the Nazis—and all of this was sanctioned by the legal system of that monstrous state.
This did not end until 1945 with the Allies’ victory over Nazi Germany.
However, a victory was evidently not achieved, for today in Israel and the U.S., hundreds of thousands of people are being held in concentration camps that are hardly any different from those of the Nazis.